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This model requires unemployment among males to be substantially higher than among females.


No, because having the two piles be the same size in the first place is a simplification. It is possible that the piles are unequal sizes, in which case only the number of unemployment in the male pile needs to be higher.


If that really happened Id expect men simply to lower their salary demands until there is parity between genders.


This doesn't work, because women can lower their salary demands too. You'd reach an equilibrium where women employees on the average demand lower salaries and are less competent.

Willingly choosing professions with low salaries is not the same as being paid less for the same job. I would not call the former discrimination.


I wouldn't call any of this discrimination.